No.1 PSC Learning App
Read each of the following two statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and indicate your answer using the codes given below:
Assertion (A): The recommendations of the State Finance Commission are not automatically binding on the state government.
Reason (R): The Constitution requires the Governor to lay the report before the legislature along with an 'explanatory memorandum' detailing the action taken, which implies the government has the discretion to accept, reject, or modify the recommendations.
Salient features of the State Finance Commission's constitutional framework include:
Fixed number of five members.
Appointment by the Governor.
Eligibility of members for re-appointment.
Direct submission of report to the legislature.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Read the following two statements, Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The State Finance Commission can be different in size from one state to another, as long as it does not exceed three members.
Reason (R): The Constitution allows the state government to determine the exact number of members of its Commission.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Which of the following authorities are explicitly mentioned in the text as having a direct role in the process of the State Finance Commission's functioning?
i. The Governor
ii. The State Legislative Assembly
iii. The Parliament of India
iv. The President of India
Which of the following are correct procedures and attributes related to the members of the State Finance Commission?
i. A member's term is fixed by the state government in the appointment order.
ii. A member can resign by writing to the Chief Minister.
iii. All members are eligible for re-appointment.
iv. A vacancy must be filled for a fresh full term.
Which of the following can be used to recover the constitutional basis and procedural powers of the State Finance Commission?
i. Article 243-I and 243-Y
ii. Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
iii. An order of the Governor
iv. A resolution by the State Legislature
Consider the following statements:
The State Finance Commission is a permanent body that functions continuously.
The members of the Commission are eligible for re-appointment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Given below are two statements, Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The State Finance Commission can be considered a quasi-judicial body.
Reason (R): It is vested with the powers of a Civil Court under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, while performing its functions.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Consider the following two statements:
Statement I: The Indian Constitution mandates that the State Finance Commission must have one chairman and two members.
Statement II: The chairman or a member must wait for the Governor's acceptance of their resignation before they can demit office.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
The qualifications for the members of the State Finance Commission emphasize expertise in:
Economics and Financial Matters.
Public and Local Administration.
Judicial and Legal Procedures.
Government and Local Body Accounts.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The State Finance Commission is a constitutional body.
Statement II: It is established to recommend principles for financial devolution from the state government to urban and rural local bodies.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Consider the following statements about the reporting procedure of the State Finance Commission:
The Commission submits its report with recommendations directly to the State Legislature.
The Governor must lay the report before the State Legislative Assembly.
The report must be accompanied by a memorandum explaining the action taken by the government on its recommendations.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Given below are two statements, Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The State Finance Commission has the power to require any person to furnish information on relevant matters.
Reason (R): This power is crucial for the Commission to conduct a comprehensive and evidence-based review of the financial position of the Panchayats.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
The recommendations submitted by the State Finance Commission to the Governor include principles governing:
The sharing of net income of state-levied taxes between the Government and Panchayats.
The appointment of executive officers for the Panchayats.
The taxes, duties, cesses, and fees which may be marked for and expended by the Panchayats.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Consider the following two statements regarding the term and resignation of a member of the State Finance Commission:
Statement I: A member of the Commission holds office for a period specified in the appointment order by the Governor and is not eligible for re-appointment.
Statement II: A member’s resignation, addressed to the Governor, is effective immediately upon its submission.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Match List-I (Provision/Function) with List-II (Description) and select the correct answer.
List-I (Provision/Function) | List-II (Description) |
A. Grants-in-Aid | 1. Power derived from the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 |
B. Explanatory Memorandum | 2. Criteria for financial aid to Panchayats from the State Consolidated Fund |
C. Summoning witnesses | 3. Eligibility for a member to serve another term |
D. Re-appointment | 4. Document detailing government's action on the Commission's report |
The State Finance Commission, in the performance of its functions, has the powers of a Civil Court for which of the following matters?
Summoning and enforcing the attendance of witnesses.
Imposing penalties for financial mismanagement.
Requiring the production of any document.
Requisitioning any public record from any office.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Consider the following statements regarding the composition of the State Finance Commission:
The Commission shall consist of a chairman and a maximum of three other members.
The state government determines the number of members in the Commission.
The members of the Commission must be appointed on a full-time basis.
One member must have experience in public administration or local administration.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Which of the following statements are correct about the Audit Board under the CAG?
i. The Audit Board was established in 1968 based on the recommendation of the Administrative Reforms Committee.
ii. The Audit Board consists of a chairman and two members appointed by the CAG.
iii. The Audit Board audits all government and semi-government institutions without requiring technical expertise.
iv. The Audit Board is responsible for appointing persons with technical knowledge in fields like engineering and chemicals for audits.
Which of the following statements are correct about the Finance Commission of India?
i. The Finance Commission consists of a chairman and four other members appointed by the President.
ii. The recommendations of the Finance Commission are binding on the Union government.
iii. The Finance Commission recommends measures to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to support panchayats and municipalities.
iv. The qualifications of the Finance Commission members are determined by the Parliament.
Which of the following statements are correct about the Attorney General of India?
i. The Attorney General is appointed by the President based on the advice of the government.
ii. The Attorney General has the right to participate in the proceedings of both Houses of Parliament without voting rights.
iii. The Attorney General’s term of office is fixed by the Constitution for six years or until the age of 65.
iv. The Attorney General cannot defend accused persons in criminal prosecutions without government permission.
Which of the following statements are correct about the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India?
i. The CAG’s salary is equivalent to that of a Supreme Court judge.
ii. The CAG submits three audit reports to the President: on appropriation accounts, finance accounts, and public undertakings.
iii. The CAG can audit the accounts of private companies not financed by the government.
iv. The CAG acts as a guide, friend, and philosopher to the Public Accounts Committee of Parliament.
With reference to the Finance Commission of India, consider the following statements:
i. The Finance Commission is a quasi-judicial body constituted by the President every five years or earlier if deemed necessary.
ii. The recommendations of the Finance Commission are binding on the Government of India.
iii. The Finance Commission makes recommendations on the distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Centre and the States.
iv. The Chairman of the Finance Commission must be a person with experience in public affairs.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
With reference to the Attorney General of India, consider the following statements:
i. The Attorney General is appointed by the President and holds office at the pleasure of the President.
ii. The Attorney General is a full-time government servant and is debarred from private legal practice.
iii. The Attorney General has the right of audience in all courts in the territory of India.
iv. The Attorney General is a member of the Central Cabinet and advises the Prime Minister directly.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
With reference to the powers and limitations of the CAG, consider the following statements:
i. The CAG can inspect any office or department subject to its audit and call for any records or documents.
ii. The CAG has control over fund withdrawals from the Consolidated Fund of India.
iii. The CAG cannot demand details of secret service expenditure and must accept a certificate from the competent authority.
iv. The CAG compiles and maintains the accounts of the Central Government.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
With reference to the duties of the CAG, consider the following statements:
i. The CAG audits all transactions related to the Contingency Fund of India and the Public Account of India.
ii. The CAG has the authority to audit the accounts of private companies not financed by the government.
iii. The CAG advises the President on the form in which the accounts of the Centre and States shall be kept.
iv. The CAG submits audit reports on state accounts directly to the state legislature.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
With reference to the role and independence of the CAG, consider the following statements:
i. The CAG is described as the guardian of the public purse and controls the entire financial system of the country at both the Centre and State levels.
ii. The CAG can be removed by the President only on the grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity, following a resolution by both Houses of Parliament with a special majority.
iii. The CAG is eligible for further office under the Government of India or any State after ceasing to hold office.
iv. The administrative expenses of the CAG’s office are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India and are not subject to the vote of Parliament.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
With reference to the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India, consider the following statements:
i. The CAG’s term of office is 6 years or until the age of 65, whichever is earlier.
ii. The CAG can be removed by the President without parliamentary approval.
iii. The CAG audits the accounts of all government companies as per the Companies Act.
iv. The CAG’s salary is equivalent to that of a Supreme Court judge.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
With reference to the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India, consider the following statements:
i. The CAG’s term of office is 6 years or until the age of 65, whichever is earlier.
ii. The CAG can be removed by the President without parliamentary approval.
iii. The CAG audits the accounts of all government companies as per the Companies Act.
iv. The CAG’s salary is equivalent to that of a Supreme Court judge.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Consider the following statements about the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India:
i. The CAG’s audit reports on appropriation accounts are submitted to the Governor of each state.
ii. The CAG certifies the net proceeds of any tax or duty under Article 279, and this certificate is final.
iii. The CAG was relieved of maintaining Central Government accounts in 1976 due to the separation of accounts from audit.
iv. The CAG can demand details of secret service expenditure from executive agencies.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
With reference to the duties of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India, consider the following statements:
i. The CAG audits all receipts and expenditures of bodies substantially financed from central or state revenues.
ii. The CAG has the authority to prescribe the form of accounts for the Centre and states under Article 150.
iii. The CAG audits the accounts of private companies not receiving government funds.
iv. The CAG acts as a guide, friend, and philosopher to the Public Accounts Committee of Parliament.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Consider the following statements regarding the independence of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India:
i. The CAG is not eligible for further office under the Government of India or any state after ceasing to hold office.
ii. The CAG’s salary can be altered to his/her disadvantage after appointment.
iii. The CAG’s administrative powers over the Indian Audit and Accounts Department are prescribed by the President after consultation with the CAG.
iv. The CAG holds office at the pleasure of the President.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India.
The CAG is appointed by the President of India and can only be removed in the same manner as a Supreme Court judge.
The CAG’s salary and administrative expenses are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India, not subject to parliamentary vote.
The CAG has the authority to control withdrawals from the Consolidated Fund of India.
The CAG submits audit reports on state accounts to the President, who presents them to the Parliament.
Consider the following statements regarding the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act:
i. It added Part IX-A to the Constitution, dealing with urban local self-government.
ii. It introduced the Twelfth Schedule, listing 18 subjects under the purview of municipalities.
iii. It mandates that elections to municipalities be conducted by the Election Commission of India.
iv. It came into force on 1 June 1993.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Consider the following statements regarding the criticism of the constitutional amendment procedure in India:
i. There is no provision for a special body like a Constitutional Convention for amending the Constitution.
ii. The Constitution prescribes a time frame for State Legislatures to ratify or reject an amendment bill.
iii. The amendment procedure is similar to the ordinary legislative process, except for the requirement of a special majority.
iv. There is no provision for a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament to resolve deadlocks over amendment bills.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Consider the following statements regarding the 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act:
i. It provides for 10% reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) in educational institutions and government appointments.
ii. It amended Articles 15 and 16 to enable reservation for EWS.
iii. It applies to minority educational institutions as well.
iv. The first state to implement this reservation was Gujarat.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Consider the following statements regarding the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act:
i. It added Article 21A, making free and compulsory education for children aged 6 to 14 a Fundamental Right.
ii. It amended Article 45 to provide for early childhood care and education for children below 6 years.
iii. It increased the number of Fundamental Duties to 11 by adding Article 51A(k).
iv. It was passed during the tenure of Prime Minister Manmohan Singh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Consider the following statements regarding the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act:
i. It introduced the Tenth Schedule to address the issue of defection in Parliament and State Legislatures.
ii. The first Lok Sabha member disqualified under this amendment was Lalduhoma.
iii. The decision of the presiding officer on disqualification is not subject to judicial review.
iv. The 91st Amendment removed the provision for exemption from disqualification in case of a party merger.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the 106th Constitutional Amendment Act?
i. It is also known as the Nari Shakti Vandana Adhiniyam.
ii. It ensures one-third reservation for women in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies.
iii. It amended Article 334 to extend reservation for SC/STs in the Lok Sabha.
iv. It introduced Article 239AA(2) to ensure women’s reservation in the Delhi Legislative Assembly.
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the types of majority required for constitutional amendments in India?
i. Some provisions can be amended by a simple majority of Parliament, similar to ordinary legislative processes.
ii. Amendments to Fundamental Rights require a special majority of Parliament.
iii. Amendments to federal provisions require ratification by all State Legislatures.
iv. The term "special majority" refers to a majority of the total membership of each House and two-thirds of members present and voting.
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act?
i. It restored the term of the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies to 5 years.
ii. It added Article 300A, placing the right to property under Part XII.
iii. It removed the word "internal disturbance" as a ground for declaring a national emergency.
iv. It abolished the provision for a joint sitting of Parliament for constitutional amendments.
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the 101st Constitutional Amendment Act?
i. It empowered both Parliament and State Legislatures to enact laws for levying GST.
ii. It introduced Article 279A, establishing the GST Council.
iii. It repealed Article 268A of the Constitution.
iv. It came into force on 8 September 2016.
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act?
i. It added Part IX to the Constitution, dealing with Panchayats.
ii. It introduced the Eleventh Schedule, which lists 29 subjects under the purview of Panchayats.
iii. It mandates that elections to Panchayati Raj institutions be conducted by the Election Commission of India.
iv. It came into force on 24 April 1993, which is observed as Panchayati Raj Day.
With reference to the 97th Constitutional Amendment Act, consider the following statements:
i. It added the right to form cooperative societies as a Fundamental Right under Article 19(c).
ii. It introduced Part IX-B to the Constitution, dealing with cooperative societies.
iii. The maximum number of board members of a cooperative society is fixed at 15.
iv. The term of office of elected board members of a cooperative society is 5 years.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
With reference to the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, consider the following statements:
i. It restored the powers of the Supreme Court and High Courts that were curtailed by the 42nd Amendment.
ii. It removed the right to property from the list of Fundamental Rights and placed it under Part XII.
iii. It allowed the suspension of Fundamental Rights under Article 19 during a national emergency declared on any ground.
iv. It mandated that a national emergency proclamation must be approved by Parliament within one month.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
With reference to the Anti-Defection Law under the 52nd Constitutional Amendment, consider the following statements:
i. A member of a House is disqualified if they voluntarily give up membership of their political party.
ii. The decision of the presiding officer regarding disqualification is final and cannot be questioned in any court.
iii. The 91st Amendment removed the exemption from disqualification in case of a split in a political party.
iv. A nominated member can join a political party within six months of taking their seat without inviting disqualification.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
With reference to the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, consider the following statements:
i. It added the words "Socialist," "Secular," and "Integrity" to the Preamble of the Constitution.
ii. It curtailed the powers of the Supreme Court and High Courts in terms of judicial review.
iii. It reduced the tenure of the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies to 5 years.
iv. It introduced Fundamental Duties under Part IV-A of the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
With reference to the amendment procedure of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:
i. An amendment bill can be initiated in either House of Parliament but not in State Legislatures.
ii. The President can withhold assent to a constitutional amendment bill or return it for reconsideration.
iii. A joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament can be held to resolve disagreements over a constitutional amendment bill.
iv. Amendments affecting the federal structure require ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures by a simple majority.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Consider the following statements regarding the 106th Constitutional Amendment (Nari Shakti Vandana Adhiniyam).
It ensures one-third reservation for women in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies, including seats reserved for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
It amended Article 334 to extend the reservation for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha until 2030.
It provides for women’s reservation in the Delhi Legislative Assembly under Article 239AA.