Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Anti-Defection Law under the 52nd and 91st Constitutional Amendments?

i. The 52nd Amendment introduced the Tenth Schedule, which outlines provisions for disqualification on grounds of defection.

ii. The 91st Amendment removed the exception for disqualification in cases of a split in a political party.

iii. A nominated member is disqualified if they join a political party within six months of taking their seat in the House.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the 44th Constitutional Amendment?

i. It restored the term of the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies to 5 years from 6 years.

ii. It ensured that Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended during a national emergency.

iii. It introduced the Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council to streamline taxation.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the 42nd Constitutional Amendment?

i. It added Part IV-A to the Constitution, introducing Fundamental Duties.

ii. It transferred five subjects, including education and forests, from the State List to the Concurrent List.

iii. It abolished the provision for a joint sitting of Parliament for resolving disagreements on constitutional amendment bills.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the amendment procedure of the Indian Constitution?

i. The concept of constitutional amendment in India was borrowed from the South African Constitution.

ii. Amendments to provisions related to the federal structure require ratification by at least half of the state legislatures by a simple majority.

iii. The President can withhold assent to a constitutional amendment bill or return it for reconsideration by Parliament. A) B) C) D)

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the 73rd Constitutional Amendment:

i. It added Part IX to the Constitution, which includes Articles 243 to 243O, dealing with the Panchayati Raj system.

ii. It mandates that the election of Panchayat members must be conducted by the Election Commission of India.

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the Anti-Defection Law under the 52nd Constitutional Amendment:

i. A member of a House is disqualified if they voluntarily give up membership of their political party.

ii. The decision of the presiding officer regarding disqualification under the Anti-Defection Law is final and cannot be questioned in any court.

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the 44th Constitutional Amendment:

i. It restored the powers of the Supreme Court and High Courts to conduct judicial review of ordinances issued by the President or Governors.

ii. It abolished the right to property as a Fundamental Right and included it under Part XII as Article 300A.

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the 42nd Constitutional Amendment:

i. It added the words “Socialist,” “Secular,” and “Integrity” to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution.

ii. It reduced the tenure of the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies from 5 years to 4 years.

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the amendment procedure under Article 368 of the Indian Constitution:

i. A constitutional amendment bill can be introduced in either House of Parliament by a minister or a private member without the prior permission of the President.

ii. In case of a deadlock between the two Houses of Parliament over a constitutional amendment bill, a joint sitting can be convened to resolve the disagreement.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the 101st Constitutional Amendment Act?

i. It introduced Article 246A, empowering both Parliament and state legislatures to levy GST on goods and services.

ii. It repealed Article 268A, which dealt with service tax levied by the Union and collected by both Union and states.

iii. It mandated that the GST Council be chaired by the Prime Minister of India.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the 97th Constitutional Amendment Act?

i. It added the right to form cooperative societies as a Fundamental Right under Article 19(c).

ii. It mandated that the board of directors of a cooperative society shall not exceed 21 members.

iii. It provided for the supersession of a cooperative society’s board for up to one year in case of persistent default.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act?

i. It limited the size of the Council of Ministers in the Centre and states to 15% of the total strength of the respective Houses.

ii. It disqualified members defecting from their party from holding any ministerial or remunerative public office.

iii. It restored the exemption for disqualification in case of a split involving one-third of a party’s members.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the types of majority required for constitutional amendments in India?

i. Amendments affecting the federal structure require a special majority in Parliament and ratification by half of the state legislatures by a simple majority.

ii. A simple majority of Parliament is sufficient to amend provisions like the formation of new states or the delimitation of constituencies.

iii. An effective majority is required for the removal of the Chief Election Commissioner.

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments:

1. The 73rd Amendment added Part IX to the Constitution, dealing with Panchayats, while the 74th Amendment added Part IX-A, dealing with Municipalities.

2. The Eleventh Schedule, added by the 73rd Amendment, lists 29 subjects under the purview of Panchayats.

3. The 74th Amendment mandates that one-third of the seats in Municipalities be reserved for women.

How many of the above statements are correct? A) Only one B) Only two C) All three D) None of the above

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act:

1. It restored the powers of the Supreme Court and High Courts to conduct judicial review of ordinances issued by the President and Governors.

2. It extended the term of the Lok Sabha and state legislatures from five years to six years.

3. It provided that Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended during a national emergency.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the Anti-Defection Law under the 52nd and 91st Constitutional Amendments:

1. The 52nd Amendment introduced the Tenth Schedule, which disqualifies a member of a House who voluntarily gives up their party membership.

2. The 91st Amendment removed the exemption from disqualification in case of a split in a political party involving one-third of its members.

3. The decision of the presiding officer on disqualification under the Anti-Defection Law is final and cannot be questioned in any court.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act:

1. It added the words "Socialist," "Secular," and "Integrity" to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution.

2. It transferred five subjects, including education and forests, from the State List to the Concurrent List.

3. It abolished the requirement of a quorum in Parliament and state legislatures.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the amendment procedure of the Indian Constitution:

1. An amendment bill can be introduced in either House of Parliament by a private member without the prior permission of the President.

2. In case of a deadlock between the two Houses over a constitutional amendment bill, a joint sitting of both Houses can be convened to resolve the disagreement.

3. The President is constitutionally obligated to give assent to a constitutional amendment bill passed by Parliament.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the amendment procedure of the Indian Constitution:

1. An amendment bill can be introduced in either House of Parliament by a private member without the prior permission of the President.

2. In case of a deadlock between the two Houses over a constitutional amendment bill, a joint sitting of both Houses can be convened to resolve the disagreement.

3. The President is constitutionally obligated to give assent to a constitutional amendment bill passed by Parliament.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the amendment procedure of the Indian Constitution:

1. An amendment bill can be introduced in either House of Parliament by a private member without the prior permission of the President.

2. In case of a deadlock between the two Houses over a constitutional amendment bill, a joint sitting of both Houses can be convened to resolve the disagreement.

3. The President is constitutionally obligated to give assent to a constitutional amendment bill passed by Parliament.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Which of these principles is essential to Judicial review?

1. The Constitution of India is the Supreme Law of the country.

2. The Supreme Court of India has the ultimate authority in ruling on Constitutional matters.

3. The judiciary must rule against any law which is in conflict with the Constitution.

Who appoints the Central Vigilance Commissioner ?

Which of the following are the functional items in the Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution? Select the correct code from below:

1. Conventional Energy
2. Public Distribution System
3. Small Scale Industries
4. Mining
5. Fisheries

In India, in case of public nuisance, persons can approach

1. The Supreme Court under Article 32 of the Constitution of India

2. The High Court under Article 226 of the Constitution of India

3. The District Magistrate under Section 133 of the Code of Criminal Procedure

4. The Court under Section 92 of the Code of Civil Procedure

The Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986

1. Prohibits all kinds of employment of children below the age of eighteen.

2. Prohibits all kinds of employment of female children below the age of eighteen.

3. Regulates employment of children above the age of fourteen in some kinds of employment.

4. Defines a 'child' to be a person who has not completed the age of eighteen years.

Which amongst the following Amendments of the Indian Constitution led to the inclusion of a New Article 21-A that made free and compulsory education to all children of 6-14 years of age as a Fundamental Right?

A decision will be said to be unreasonable in the sense of the Wednesbury principle if : Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. It is based on wholly irrelevant material or wholly irrelevant consideration
2. It has ignored a very relevant material which it should have taken into consideration
3. It is so absurd that no sensible person could ever have reached it

Which of the following is a Human Right recognised under the Universal Declaration of Human Rights and the Constitution of India?

1. All are equal before the law.
2. No one shall be subjected to arbitrary arrest, detention or exile.
3. Everyone has the right to freedom of opinion and expression.
4. Everyone has the right to freedom of thought, conscience and religion.

Article 368 of the Constitution of India governs amendments. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. That can be effected by Parliament of india by a prescribed 'special majority'.
2. That require, in addition to 'special majority', ratification by at least one half of the State Legislatures.
3. That can be effected by Parliament of India by a 'simple majority'.

Which of the following statements is true in relation to the declaration of a national emergency under Article 352 of the Constitution of India? Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. It can be imposed when there is a grave threat to the security of India or any of its territory due to war, externa aggression or armed rebellion.
2. It will cease to operate after one month from the date of its issue unless it is approved in the meantime by the parliament.
3. For further continuance of emergency after six months, the resolution has to be passed by either house of parliament by a majority of not less than two-third members.
4. For further continuance of emergency after six months, the resolution has to be passed by either house of parliament by a simple majority.

Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Doctrine of Pleasure?

i. The Doctrine of Pleasure allows the President or Governor to terminate a civil servant’s service without any notice.

ii. The Doctrine of Pleasure is based on the British Crown’s prerogative and has been adopted without modifications in India.

iii. Article 311 imposes restrictions on the arbitrary dismissal of civil servants.

iv. The tenure of the Chief Election Commissioner is subject to the pleasure of the President.

v. The Supreme Court in State of Bihar vs. Abdul Majid (1954) held that the English Common Law was adopted in its entirety for the Doctrine of Pleasure.

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT)?

i. The CAT was established under the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985.

ii. The CAT has jurisdiction over members of the Defence Forces and secretarial staff of Parliament.

iii. The Principal Bench of the CAT is located in Ernakulam.

iv. The Chairman of the CAT serves a tenure of 4 years or until the age of 70, whichever is earlier.

v. Appeals against CAT orders can now be made to the High Courts following the Chandra Kumar case (1997).

Which of the following statements is/are correct about Tribunals under Articles 323A and 323B?

i. Tribunals under Article 323A can only be established by the Parliament.

ii. Tribunals under Article 323B can be established by both Parliament and State Legislatures.

iii. A hierarchy of tribunals is mandatory under Article 323A.

iv. Article 323B covers disputes related to taxation, land reforms, and elections.

v. The Chandra Kumar case (1997) upheld the exclusion of High Court jurisdiction for tribunals under both Articles 323A and 323B.

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the appointment and tenure in the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT)?

i. The Chairman of the CAT must be at least 50 years old at the time of appointment.

ii. The post of Vice-Chairman was removed by the Administrative Tribunals Amendment Act, 2006.

iii. Members of the CAT serve a tenure of 4 years or until the age of 65.

iv. The appointment of the Chairman and Members is made by the Central Government based on recommendations of a search-cum-selection committee.

v. The CAT is bound by the Civil Procedure Code of 1908 for its proceedings.

Which of the following statements is/are correct about State Administrative Tribunals (SATs)?

i. SATs can only be established by the Central Government upon the request of State Governments.

ii. SATs exercise original jurisdiction over recruitment and service matters of state government employees.

iii. Joint Administrative Tribunals (JATs) can be established for two or more states.

iv. The Chairman and Members of SATs are appointed by the State Government.

v. SATs were introduced by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976.

Which of the following statements are correct about the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT)?

i. The CAT was established in 1985 under Article 323A.

ii. The CAT has 19 benches across India, with the Principal Bench in New Delhi.

iii. The CAT has jurisdiction over secretarial staff of Parliament and officers of the Supreme Court.

iv. The first Chairman of the CAT was Justice K. Madhava Reddy.

v. Appeals against CAT orders can only be made to the Supreme Court.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Doctrine of Pleasure?

i. The Doctrine of Pleasure is derived from the British legal system but modified for India.

ii. Article 310 applies to members of All India Services and Civil Posts under the Centre and States.

iii. The tenure of High Court Judges is subject to the pleasure of the President.

iv. The Supreme Court in Union of India vs. Tulsiram Patel (1985) held that the Doctrine of Pleasure is based on public policy.

v. Article 311 provides safeguards to civil servants against arbitrary dismissal.

Which of the following statements are correct about the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT)?

i. The CAT was established in 1985 under Article 323A.

ii. The CAT has 19 benches across India, with the Principal Bench in New Delhi.

iii. The CAT has jurisdiction over secretarial staff of Parliament and officers of the Supreme Court.

iv. The first Chairman of the CAT was Justice K. Madhava Reddy.

v. Appeals against CAT orders can only be made to the Supreme Court.

Which of the following statements are correct about Tribunals under Article 323B?

i. Article 323B empowers both Parliament and State Legislatures to establish tribunals.

ii. Tribunals under Article 323B cover disputes related to taxation, foreign exchange, and land reforms.

iii. A hierarchy of tribunals is not required under Article 323B.

iv. The Chandra Kumar case (1997) upheld the exclusion of High Court jurisdiction for Article 323B tribunals.

v. Tribunals under Article 323B can be established for disputes related to elections to Parliament and Legislative Assemblies.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985?

i. The Act empowers the Central Government to establish both Central and State Administrative Tribunals.

ii. The Act allows the establishment of Joint Administrative Tribunals (JATs) for two or more states.

iii. The CAT is bound by the Civil Procedure Code of 1908 for its proceedings.

iv. The Act was passed in accordance with Article 323A of the Constitution.

v. The Chairman and Members of the CAT are appointed by the State Government.

Which of the following statements are correct about the Chandra Kumar case (1997)?

i. It declared the exclusion of High Court jurisdiction under Articles 323A and 323B unconstitutional.

ii. It allowed appeals against CAT orders to be made to the Division Bench of the concerned High Court.

iii. It upheld the restriction that appeals against CAT orders could only be made to the Supreme Court.

iv. It emphasized that judicial review is part of the basic structure of the Constitution.

v. It ruled that SATs cannot exercise original jurisdiction over state government employees.

Assertion (A): The Doctrine of Pleasure allows the President or Governor to terminate the services of civil servants at their discretion.

Reason (R): Article 311 imposes restrictions on the Doctrine of Pleasure to prevent arbitrary dismissals.

Assertion (A): The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) is not bound by the Civil Procedure Code of 1908.

Reason (R): The CAT follows the principles of natural justice in its proceedings.

Assertion (A): The Chandra Kumar case (1997) restored the jurisdiction of High Courts over appeals from the Central Administrative Tribunal.

Reason (R): The Supreme Court held that judicial review is a part of the basic structure of the Constitution.

Assertion (A): Tribunals under Article 323B require a hierarchy of tribunals to be established.

Reason (R): Article 323B deals with tribunals for matters like taxation, land reforms, and elections, which require structured adjudication.

Assertion (A): The Doctrine of Pleasure does not apply to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.

Reason (R): The Comptroller and Auditor General’s tenure is protected to ensure independence from executive control.

Which among the following statement(s) is/are correct?

1. The Bharatiya Janata Party was founded by Syama Prasad Mukherjee.

2. The Election Commission appoints the District Election Officer to supervise election work in a district.

3. The first Asian country to implement NOTA was Bangladesh.

4. The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners are appointed by the Prime Minister.

Which among the following statement(s) is/are correct?

1. The Election Commission prepares a roster for the publicity of political parties’ policies on radio and TV.

2. The longest-serving Chief Election Commissioner was Kalyan Sundaram.

3. The spending limit for assembly elections in small states is ₹28 lakhs.

4. The minimum age to contest for the Rajya Sabha is 35 years.

Which among the following statement(s) is/are correct?

1. The Election Commission has quasi-judicial powers to settle disputes related to the recognition of political parties.

2. The 61st Constitutional Amendment was passed under Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi.

3. The security deposit for a Rajya Sabha candidate is ₹25,000.

4. The State Election Commissioner submits their resignation to the President.

Which among the following statement(s) is/are correct?

1. The NOTA symbol was designed by the National Institute of Design, Ahmedabad.

2. The first pilot implementation of VVPAT was in Goa in 2013.

3. The People’s Union for Civil Liberties led to the implementation of NOTA in India.

4. The first Lok Sabha elections saw the Indian National Congress win 364 seats.