With reference to the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, consider the following statements:

i. It restored the powers of the Supreme Court and High Courts that were curtailed by the 42nd Amendment.

ii. It removed the right to property from the list of Fundamental Rights and placed it under Part XII.

iii. It allowed the suspension of Fundamental Rights under Article 19 during a national emergency declared on any ground.

iv. It mandated that a national emergency proclamation must be approved by Parliament within one month.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

With reference to the Anti-Defection Law under the 52nd Constitutional Amendment, consider the following statements:

i. A member of a House is disqualified if they voluntarily give up membership of their political party.

ii. The decision of the presiding officer regarding disqualification is final and cannot be questioned in any court.

iii. The 91st Amendment removed the exemption from disqualification in case of a split in a political party.

iv. A nominated member can join a political party within six months of taking their seat without inviting disqualification.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

With reference to the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, consider the following statements:

i. It added the words "Socialist," "Secular," and "Integrity" to the Preamble of the Constitution.

ii. It curtailed the powers of the Supreme Court and High Courts in terms of judicial review.

iii. It reduced the tenure of the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies to 5 years.

iv. It introduced Fundamental Duties under Part IV-A of the Constitution.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

With reference to the amendment procedure of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:

i. An amendment bill can be initiated in either House of Parliament but not in State Legislatures.

ii. The President can withhold assent to a constitutional amendment bill or return it for reconsideration.

iii. A joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament can be held to resolve disagreements over a constitutional amendment bill.

iv. Amendments affecting the federal structure require ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures by a simple majority.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the 106th Constitutional Amendment (Nari Shakti Vandana Adhiniyam).

1. It ensures one-third reservation for women in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies, including seats reserved for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.

2. It amended Article 334 to extend the reservation for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha until 2030.

3. It provides for women’s reservation in the Delhi Legislative Assembly under Article 239AA.

Consider the following statements regarding the 91st Constitutional Amendment.

1. It capped the size of the Central Council of Ministers at 15% of the Lok Sabha’s total strength.

2. It allowed disqualification on grounds of defection to apply even in cases of a merger of political parties.

3. It amended Article 361B to disqualify defectors from holding any remunerative office under the government.

Consider the following statements regarding the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments.

1. The 73rd Amendment added the Eleventh Schedule, which includes 29 subjects, while the 74th Amendment added the Twelfth Schedule with 29 subjects.

2. Both amendments were passed under the leadership of Prime Minister P.V. Narasimha Rao.

3. The 73rd Amendment mandates elections for Panchayats every five years, while the 74th Amendment does not specify the frequency of municipal elections.

Consider the following statements regarding the types of majority required for constitutional amendments.

1. Amendments to Fundamental Rights require a simple majority of Parliament.

2. Amendments to federal provisions require ratification by half of the state legislatures by a special majority.

3. The term “special majority” refers to a majority of the total membership of each House and two-thirds of members present and voting.

Consider the following statements regarding the 44th Constitutional Amendment.

1. It reduced the period for parliamentary approval of a national emergency from two months to one month.

2. It abolished the provision for suspending Fundamental Rights under Article 19 during any type of emergency.

3. It restored the term of the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies to 5 years.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the 97th Constitutional Amendment?

1. It added the right to form cooperative societies as a Fundamental Right under Article 19(c).

2. It limits the number of board members of a cooperative society to a maximum of 21.

3. It mandates that the annual general body meeting of cooperative societies be convened within three months of the financial year’s end.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the 101st Constitutional Amendment?

1. It introduced Article 246A, empowering both Parliament and State Legislatures to levy GST on goods and services.

2. It repealed Article 268A, which dealt with service tax levied by the Union.

3. It mandated the establishment of a GST Council under Article 279A.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Anti-Defection Law?

1. A member disqualified under the Anti-Defection Law for defection is also barred from being appointed as a minister.

2. The decision of the presiding officer on disqualification under the Tenth Schedule is final and cannot be questioned in any court.

3. The 91st Amendment removed the provision exempting disqualification in cases of a merger of political parties.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the 42nd Constitutional Amendment?

1. It added Fundamental Duties under Part IV-A of the Constitution.

2. It transferred five subjects, including education and forests, from the State List to the Concurrent List.

3. It empowered the President to declare a state of emergency in a part of India.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the amendment procedure under Article 368?

1. A constitutional amendment bill requires a special majority in each House of Parliament, defined as a majority of the total membership and two-thirds of members present and voting.

2. There is no provision for a joint sitting of both Houses to resolve disagreements over a constitutional amendment bill.

3. Amendments to federal provisions require ratification by at least half of the state legislatures by a simple majority.

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments.

1. The 73rd Amendment added Part IX to the Constitution, dealing with Panchayats, while the 74th Amendment added Part IXA, dealing with Municipalities.

2. The Eleventh Schedule, added by the 73rd Amendment, contains 18 subjects related to the powers and responsibilities of Panchayats.

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the 44th Constitutional Amendment.

1. It restored the powers of the Supreme Court and High Courts to conduct judicial review of ordinances.

2. It abolished the right to property as a fundamental right and placed it under Part XII as Article 300A.

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the Anti-Defection Law under the 52nd and 91st Amendments.

1. The 91st Amendment removed the exemption from disqualification for defection in cases of a split in a political party.

2. A nominated member can join a political party within six months of taking their seat without inviting disqualification.

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the 42nd Constitutional Amendment.

1. It amended the Preamble to replace "Sovereign Democratic Republic" with "Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic."

2. It reduced the tenure of the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies from 5 years to 4 years.

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the amendment procedure of the Indian Constitution.

1. A constitutional amendment bill can be initiated in either House of Parliament or by state legislatures.

2. The President is constitutionally obligated to give assent to a constitutional amendment bill.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the 97th Constitutional Amendment?

i. It added the right to form cooperative societies as a Fundamental Right under Article 19(c).

ii. It mandates that the board of directors of a cooperative society shall not exceed 21 members.

iii. It requires the approval of the Election Commission of India for conducting elections to cooperative societies. A) B) C) D)

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Anti-Defection Law under the 52nd and 91st Constitutional Amendments?

i. The 52nd Amendment introduced the Tenth Schedule, which outlines provisions for disqualification on grounds of defection.

ii. The 91st Amendment removed the exception for disqualification in cases of a split in a political party.

iii. A nominated member is disqualified if they join a political party within six months of taking their seat in the House.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the 44th Constitutional Amendment?

i. It restored the term of the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies to 5 years from 6 years.

ii. It ensured that Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended during a national emergency.

iii. It introduced the Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council to streamline taxation.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the 42nd Constitutional Amendment?

i. It added Part IV-A to the Constitution, introducing Fundamental Duties.

ii. It transferred five subjects, including education and forests, from the State List to the Concurrent List.

iii. It abolished the provision for a joint sitting of Parliament for resolving disagreements on constitutional amendment bills.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the amendment procedure of the Indian Constitution?

i. The concept of constitutional amendment in India was borrowed from the South African Constitution.

ii. Amendments to provisions related to the federal structure require ratification by at least half of the state legislatures by a simple majority.

iii. The President can withhold assent to a constitutional amendment bill or return it for reconsideration by Parliament. A) B) C) D)

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the 73rd Constitutional Amendment:

i. It added Part IX to the Constitution, which includes Articles 243 to 243O, dealing with the Panchayati Raj system.

ii. It mandates that the election of Panchayat members must be conducted by the Election Commission of India.

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the Anti-Defection Law under the 52nd Constitutional Amendment:

i. A member of a House is disqualified if they voluntarily give up membership of their political party.

ii. The decision of the presiding officer regarding disqualification under the Anti-Defection Law is final and cannot be questioned in any court.

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the 44th Constitutional Amendment:

i. It restored the powers of the Supreme Court and High Courts to conduct judicial review of ordinances issued by the President or Governors.

ii. It abolished the right to property as a Fundamental Right and included it under Part XII as Article 300A.

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the 42nd Constitutional Amendment:

i. It added the words “Socialist,” “Secular,” and “Integrity” to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution.

ii. It reduced the tenure of the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies from 5 years to 4 years.

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the amendment procedure under Article 368 of the Indian Constitution:

i. A constitutional amendment bill can be introduced in either House of Parliament by a minister or a private member without the prior permission of the President.

ii. In case of a deadlock between the two Houses of Parliament over a constitutional amendment bill, a joint sitting can be convened to resolve the disagreement.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the 101st Constitutional Amendment Act?

i. It introduced Article 246A, empowering both Parliament and state legislatures to levy GST on goods and services.

ii. It repealed Article 268A, which dealt with service tax levied by the Union and collected by both Union and states.

iii. It mandated that the GST Council be chaired by the Prime Minister of India.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the 97th Constitutional Amendment Act?

i. It added the right to form cooperative societies as a Fundamental Right under Article 19(c).

ii. It mandated that the board of directors of a cooperative society shall not exceed 21 members.

iii. It provided for the supersession of a cooperative society’s board for up to one year in case of persistent default.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act?

i. It limited the size of the Council of Ministers in the Centre and states to 15% of the total strength of the respective Houses.

ii. It disqualified members defecting from their party from holding any ministerial or remunerative public office.

iii. It restored the exemption for disqualification in case of a split involving one-third of a party’s members.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the types of majority required for constitutional amendments in India?

i. Amendments affecting the federal structure require a special majority in Parliament and ratification by half of the state legislatures by a simple majority.

ii. A simple majority of Parliament is sufficient to amend provisions like the formation of new states or the delimitation of constituencies.

iii. An effective majority is required for the removal of the Chief Election Commissioner.

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments:

1. The 73rd Amendment added Part IX to the Constitution, dealing with Panchayats, while the 74th Amendment added Part IX-A, dealing with Municipalities.

2. The Eleventh Schedule, added by the 73rd Amendment, lists 29 subjects under the purview of Panchayats.

3. The 74th Amendment mandates that one-third of the seats in Municipalities be reserved for women.

How many of the above statements are correct? A) Only one B) Only two C) All three D) None of the above

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act:

1. It restored the powers of the Supreme Court and High Courts to conduct judicial review of ordinances issued by the President and Governors.

2. It extended the term of the Lok Sabha and state legislatures from five years to six years.

3. It provided that Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended during a national emergency.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the Anti-Defection Law under the 52nd and 91st Constitutional Amendments:

1. The 52nd Amendment introduced the Tenth Schedule, which disqualifies a member of a House who voluntarily gives up their party membership.

2. The 91st Amendment removed the exemption from disqualification in case of a split in a political party involving one-third of its members.

3. The decision of the presiding officer on disqualification under the Anti-Defection Law is final and cannot be questioned in any court.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act:

1. It added the words "Socialist," "Secular," and "Integrity" to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution.

2. It transferred five subjects, including education and forests, from the State List to the Concurrent List.

3. It abolished the requirement of a quorum in Parliament and state legislatures.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the amendment procedure of the Indian Constitution:

1. An amendment bill can be introduced in either House of Parliament by a private member without the prior permission of the President.

2. In case of a deadlock between the two Houses over a constitutional amendment bill, a joint sitting of both Houses can be convened to resolve the disagreement.

3. The President is constitutionally obligated to give assent to a constitutional amendment bill passed by Parliament.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the amendment procedure of the Indian Constitution:

1. An amendment bill can be introduced in either House of Parliament by a private member without the prior permission of the President.

2. In case of a deadlock between the two Houses over a constitutional amendment bill, a joint sitting of both Houses can be convened to resolve the disagreement.

3. The President is constitutionally obligated to give assent to a constitutional amendment bill passed by Parliament.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the amendment procedure of the Indian Constitution:

1. An amendment bill can be introduced in either House of Parliament by a private member without the prior permission of the President.

2. In case of a deadlock between the two Houses over a constitutional amendment bill, a joint sitting of both Houses can be convened to resolve the disagreement.

3. The President is constitutionally obligated to give assent to a constitutional amendment bill passed by Parliament.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Which of these principles is essential to Judicial review?

1. The Constitution of India is the Supreme Law of the country.

2. The Supreme Court of India has the ultimate authority in ruling on Constitutional matters.

3. The judiciary must rule against any law which is in conflict with the Constitution.

Who appoints the Central Vigilance Commissioner ?

Which of the following are the functional items in the Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution? Select the correct code from below:

1. Conventional Energy
2. Public Distribution System
3. Small Scale Industries
4. Mining
5. Fisheries

In India, in case of public nuisance, persons can approach

1. The Supreme Court under Article 32 of the Constitution of India

2. The High Court under Article 226 of the Constitution of India

3. The District Magistrate under Section 133 of the Code of Criminal Procedure

4. The Court under Section 92 of the Code of Civil Procedure

The Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986

1. Prohibits all kinds of employment of children below the age of eighteen.

2. Prohibits all kinds of employment of female children below the age of eighteen.

3. Regulates employment of children above the age of fourteen in some kinds of employment.

4. Defines a 'child' to be a person who has not completed the age of eighteen years.

Which amongst the following Amendments of the Indian Constitution led to the inclusion of a New Article 21-A that made free and compulsory education to all children of 6-14 years of age as a Fundamental Right?

A decision will be said to be unreasonable in the sense of the Wednesbury principle if : Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. It is based on wholly irrelevant material or wholly irrelevant consideration
2. It has ignored a very relevant material which it should have taken into consideration
3. It is so absurd that no sensible person could ever have reached it

Which of the following is a Human Right recognised under the Universal Declaration of Human Rights and the Constitution of India?

1. All are equal before the law.
2. No one shall be subjected to arbitrary arrest, detention or exile.
3. Everyone has the right to freedom of opinion and expression.
4. Everyone has the right to freedom of thought, conscience and religion.

Article 368 of the Constitution of India governs amendments. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. That can be effected by Parliament of india by a prescribed 'special majority'.
2. That require, in addition to 'special majority', ratification by at least one half of the State Legislatures.
3. That can be effected by Parliament of India by a 'simple majority'.

Which of the following statements is true in relation to the declaration of a national emergency under Article 352 of the Constitution of India? Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. It can be imposed when there is a grave threat to the security of India or any of its territory due to war, externa aggression or armed rebellion.
2. It will cease to operate after one month from the date of its issue unless it is approved in the meantime by the parliament.
3. For further continuance of emergency after six months, the resolution has to be passed by either house of parliament by a majority of not less than two-third members.
4. For further continuance of emergency after six months, the resolution has to be passed by either house of parliament by a simple majority.