Consider the following statements regarding the composition of the State Finance Commission:

1. The Commission shall consist of a chairman and a maximum of three other members.

2. The state government determines the number of members in the Commission.

3. The members of the Commission must be appointed on a full-time basis.

4. One member must have experience in public administration or local administration.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Which of the following statements are correct about the Audit Board under the CAG?

i. The Audit Board was established in 1968 based on the recommendation of the Administrative Reforms Committee.
ii. The Audit Board consists of a chairman and two members appointed by the CAG.
iii. The Audit Board audits all government and semi-government institutions without requiring technical expertise.
iv. The Audit Board is responsible for appointing persons with technical knowledge in fields like engineering and chemicals for audits.

Which of the following statements are correct about the Finance Commission of India?

i. The Finance Commission consists of a chairman and four other members appointed by the President.
ii. The recommendations of the Finance Commission are binding on the Union government.
iii. The Finance Commission recommends measures to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to support panchayats and municipalities.
iv. The qualifications of the Finance Commission members are determined by the Parliament.

Which of the following statements are correct about the Attorney General of India?

i. The Attorney General is appointed by the President based on the advice of the government.
ii. The Attorney General has the right to participate in the proceedings of both Houses of Parliament without voting rights.
iii. The Attorney General’s term of office is fixed by the Constitution for six years or until the age of 65.
iv. The Attorney General cannot defend accused persons in criminal prosecutions without government permission.

Which of the following statements are correct about the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India?

i. The CAG’s salary is equivalent to that of a Supreme Court judge.
ii. The CAG submits three audit reports to the President: on appropriation accounts, finance accounts, and public undertakings.
iii. The CAG can audit the accounts of private companies not financed by the government.
iv. The CAG acts as a guide, friend, and philosopher to the Public Accounts Committee of Parliament.

With reference to the Finance Commission of India, consider the following statements:

i. The Finance Commission is a quasi-judicial body constituted by the President every five years or earlier if deemed necessary.
ii. The recommendations of the Finance Commission are binding on the Government of India.
iii. The Finance Commission makes recommendations on the distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Centre and the States.
iv. The Chairman of the Finance Commission must be a person with experience in public affairs.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

With reference to the Attorney General of India, consider the following statements:

i. The Attorney General is appointed by the President and holds office at the pleasure of the President.
ii. The Attorney General is a full-time government servant and is debarred from private legal practice.
iii. The Attorney General has the right of audience in all courts in the territory of India.
iv. The Attorney General is a member of the Central Cabinet and advises the Prime Minister directly.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

With reference to the powers and limitations of the CAG, consider the following statements:

i. The CAG can inspect any office or department subject to its audit and call for any records or documents.
ii. The CAG has control over fund withdrawals from the Consolidated Fund of India.
iii. The CAG cannot demand details of secret service expenditure and must accept a certificate from the competent authority.
iv. The CAG compiles and maintains the accounts of the Central Government.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

With reference to the duties of the CAG, consider the following statements:

i. The CAG audits all transactions related to the Contingency Fund of India and the Public Account of India.
ii. The CAG has the authority to audit the accounts of private companies not financed by the government.
iii. The CAG advises the President on the form in which the accounts of the Centre and States shall be kept.
iv. The CAG submits audit reports on state accounts directly to the state legislature.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

With reference to the role and independence of the CAG, consider the following statements:

i. The CAG is described as the guardian of the public purse and controls the entire financial system of the country at both the Centre and State levels.
ii. The CAG can be removed by the President only on the grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity, following a resolution by both Houses of Parliament with a special majority.
iii. The CAG is eligible for further office under the Government of India or any State after ceasing to hold office.
iv. The administrative expenses of the CAG’s office are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India and are not subject to the vote of Parliament.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

With reference to the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India, consider the following statements:
i. The CAG’s term of office is 6 years or until the age of 65, whichever is earlier.
ii. The CAG can be removed by the President without parliamentary approval.
iii. The CAG audits the accounts of all government companies as per the Companies Act.
iv. The CAG’s salary is equivalent to that of a Supreme Court judge.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

5. With reference to the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India, consider the following statements:
   i. The CAG’s term of office is 6 years or until the age of 65, whichever is earlier.
   ii. The CAG can be removed by the President without parliamentary approval.
   iii. The CAG audits the accounts of all government companies as per the Companies Act.
   iv. The CAG’s salary is equivalent to that of a Supreme Court judge.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Consider the following statements about the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India:
i. The CAG’s audit reports on appropriation accounts are submitted to the Governor of each state.
ii. The CAG certifies the net proceeds of any tax or duty under Article 279, and this certificate is final.
iii. The CAG was relieved of maintaining Central Government accounts in 1976 due to the separation of accounts from audit.
iv. The CAG can demand details of secret service expenditure from executive agencies.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

With reference to the duties of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India, consider the following statements:
i. The CAG audits all receipts and expenditures of bodies substantially financed from central or state revenues.
ii. The CAG has the authority to prescribe the form of accounts for the Centre and states under Article 150.
iii. The CAG audits the accounts of private companies not receiving government funds.
iv. The CAG acts as a guide, friend, and philosopher to the Public Accounts Committee of Parliament.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the independence of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India:
i. The CAG is not eligible for further office under the Government of India or any state after ceasing to hold office.
ii. The CAG’s salary can be altered to his/her disadvantage after appointment.
iii. The CAG’s administrative powers over the Indian Audit and Accounts Department are prescribed by the President after consultation with the CAG.
iv. The CAG holds office at the pleasure of the President.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India.

1. The CAG is appointed by the President of India and can only be removed in the same manner as a Supreme Court judge.

2. The CAG’s salary and administrative expenses are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India, not subject to parliamentary vote.

3. The CAG has the authority to control withdrawals from the Consolidated Fund of India.

4. The CAG submits audit reports on state accounts to the President, who presents them to the Parliament.

Consider the following statements regarding the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act:

i. It added Part IX-A to the Constitution, dealing with urban local self-government.

ii. It introduced the Twelfth Schedule, listing 18 subjects under the purview of municipalities.

iii. It mandates that elections to municipalities be conducted by the Election Commission of India.

iv. It came into force on 1 June 1993.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the criticism of the constitutional amendment procedure in India:

i. There is no provision for a special body like a Constitutional Convention for amending the Constitution.

ii. The Constitution prescribes a time frame for State Legislatures to ratify or reject an amendment bill.

iii. The amendment procedure is similar to the ordinary legislative process, except for the requirement of a special majority.

iv. There is no provision for a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament to resolve deadlocks over amendment bills.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act:

i. It provides for 10% reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) in educational institutions and government appointments.

ii. It amended Articles 15 and 16 to enable reservation for EWS.

iii. It applies to minority educational institutions as well.

iv. The first state to implement this reservation was Gujarat.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act:

i. It added Article 21A, making free and compulsory education for children aged 6 to 14 a Fundamental Right.

ii. It amended Article 45 to provide for early childhood care and education for children below 6 years.

iii. It increased the number of Fundamental Duties to 11 by adding Article 51A(k).

iv. It was passed during the tenure of Prime Minister Manmohan Singh.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act:

i. It introduced the Tenth Schedule to address the issue of defection in Parliament and State Legislatures.

ii. The first Lok Sabha member disqualified under this amendment was Lalduhoma.

iii. The decision of the presiding officer on disqualification is not subject to judicial review.

iv. The 91st Amendment removed the provision for exemption from disqualification in case of a party merger.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the 106th Constitutional Amendment Act?

i. It is also known as the Nari Shakti Vandana Adhiniyam.

ii. It ensures one-third reservation for women in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies.

iii. It amended Article 334 to extend reservation for SC/STs in the Lok Sabha.

iv. It introduced Article 239AA(2) to ensure women’s reservation in the Delhi Legislative Assembly.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the types of majority required for constitutional amendments in India?

i. Some provisions can be amended by a simple majority of Parliament, similar to ordinary legislative processes.

ii. Amendments to Fundamental Rights require a special majority of Parliament.

iii. Amendments to federal provisions require ratification by all State Legislatures.

iv. The term "special majority" refers to a majority of the total membership of each House and two-thirds of members present and voting.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act?

i. It restored the term of the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies to 5 years.

ii. It added Article 300A, placing the right to property under Part XII.

iii. It removed the word "internal disturbance" as a ground for declaring a national emergency.

iv. It abolished the provision for a joint sitting of Parliament for constitutional amendments.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the 101st Constitutional Amendment Act?

i. It empowered both Parliament and State Legislatures to enact laws for levying GST.

ii. It introduced Article 279A, establishing the GST Council.

iii. It repealed Article 268A of the Constitution.

iv. It came into force on 8 September 2016.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act?

i. It added Part IX to the Constitution, dealing with Panchayats.

ii. It introduced the Eleventh Schedule, which lists 29 subjects under the purview of Panchayats.

iii. It mandates that elections to Panchayati Raj institutions be conducted by the Election Commission of India.

iv. It came into force on 24 April 1993, which is observed as Panchayati Raj Day.

With reference to the 97th Constitutional Amendment Act, consider the following statements:

i. It added the right to form cooperative societies as a Fundamental Right under Article 19(c).

ii. It introduced Part IX-B to the Constitution, dealing with cooperative societies.

iii. The maximum number of board members of a cooperative society is fixed at 15.

iv. The term of office of elected board members of a cooperative society is 5 years.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

With reference to the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, consider the following statements:

i. It restored the powers of the Supreme Court and High Courts that were curtailed by the 42nd Amendment.

ii. It removed the right to property from the list of Fundamental Rights and placed it under Part XII.

iii. It allowed the suspension of Fundamental Rights under Article 19 during a national emergency declared on any ground.

iv. It mandated that a national emergency proclamation must be approved by Parliament within one month.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

With reference to the Anti-Defection Law under the 52nd Constitutional Amendment, consider the following statements:

i. A member of a House is disqualified if they voluntarily give up membership of their political party.

ii. The decision of the presiding officer regarding disqualification is final and cannot be questioned in any court.

iii. The 91st Amendment removed the exemption from disqualification in case of a split in a political party.

iv. A nominated member can join a political party within six months of taking their seat without inviting disqualification.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

With reference to the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, consider the following statements:

i. It added the words "Socialist," "Secular," and "Integrity" to the Preamble of the Constitution.

ii. It curtailed the powers of the Supreme Court and High Courts in terms of judicial review.

iii. It reduced the tenure of the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies to 5 years.

iv. It introduced Fundamental Duties under Part IV-A of the Constitution.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

With reference to the amendment procedure of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:

i. An amendment bill can be initiated in either House of Parliament but not in State Legislatures.

ii. The President can withhold assent to a constitutional amendment bill or return it for reconsideration.

iii. A joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament can be held to resolve disagreements over a constitutional amendment bill.

iv. Amendments affecting the federal structure require ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures by a simple majority.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the 106th Constitutional Amendment (Nari Shakti Vandana Adhiniyam).

1. It ensures one-third reservation for women in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies, including seats reserved for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.

2. It amended Article 334 to extend the reservation for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha until 2030.

3. It provides for women’s reservation in the Delhi Legislative Assembly under Article 239AA.

Consider the following statements regarding the 91st Constitutional Amendment.

1. It capped the size of the Central Council of Ministers at 15% of the Lok Sabha’s total strength.

2. It allowed disqualification on grounds of defection to apply even in cases of a merger of political parties.

3. It amended Article 361B to disqualify defectors from holding any remunerative office under the government.

Consider the following statements regarding the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments.

1. The 73rd Amendment added the Eleventh Schedule, which includes 29 subjects, while the 74th Amendment added the Twelfth Schedule with 29 subjects.

2. Both amendments were passed under the leadership of Prime Minister P.V. Narasimha Rao.

3. The 73rd Amendment mandates elections for Panchayats every five years, while the 74th Amendment does not specify the frequency of municipal elections.

Consider the following statements regarding the types of majority required for constitutional amendments.

1. Amendments to Fundamental Rights require a simple majority of Parliament.

2. Amendments to federal provisions require ratification by half of the state legislatures by a special majority.

3. The term “special majority” refers to a majority of the total membership of each House and two-thirds of members present and voting.

Consider the following statements regarding the 44th Constitutional Amendment.

1. It reduced the period for parliamentary approval of a national emergency from two months to one month.

2. It abolished the provision for suspending Fundamental Rights under Article 19 during any type of emergency.

3. It restored the term of the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies to 5 years.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the 97th Constitutional Amendment?

1. It added the right to form cooperative societies as a Fundamental Right under Article 19(c).

2. It limits the number of board members of a cooperative society to a maximum of 21.

3. It mandates that the annual general body meeting of cooperative societies be convened within three months of the financial year’s end.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the 101st Constitutional Amendment?

1. It introduced Article 246A, empowering both Parliament and State Legislatures to levy GST on goods and services.

2. It repealed Article 268A, which dealt with service tax levied by the Union.

3. It mandated the establishment of a GST Council under Article 279A.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Anti-Defection Law?

1. A member disqualified under the Anti-Defection Law for defection is also barred from being appointed as a minister.

2. The decision of the presiding officer on disqualification under the Tenth Schedule is final and cannot be questioned in any court.

3. The 91st Amendment removed the provision exempting disqualification in cases of a merger of political parties.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the 42nd Constitutional Amendment?

1. It added Fundamental Duties under Part IV-A of the Constitution.

2. It transferred five subjects, including education and forests, from the State List to the Concurrent List.

3. It empowered the President to declare a state of emergency in a part of India.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the amendment procedure under Article 368?

1. A constitutional amendment bill requires a special majority in each House of Parliament, defined as a majority of the total membership and two-thirds of members present and voting.

2. There is no provision for a joint sitting of both Houses to resolve disagreements over a constitutional amendment bill.

3. Amendments to federal provisions require ratification by at least half of the state legislatures by a simple majority.

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments.

1. The 73rd Amendment added Part IX to the Constitution, dealing with Panchayats, while the 74th Amendment added Part IXA, dealing with Municipalities.

2. The Eleventh Schedule, added by the 73rd Amendment, contains 18 subjects related to the powers and responsibilities of Panchayats.

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the 44th Constitutional Amendment.

1. It restored the powers of the Supreme Court and High Courts to conduct judicial review of ordinances.

2. It abolished the right to property as a fundamental right and placed it under Part XII as Article 300A.

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the Anti-Defection Law under the 52nd and 91st Amendments.

1. The 91st Amendment removed the exemption from disqualification for defection in cases of a split in a political party.

2. A nominated member can join a political party within six months of taking their seat without inviting disqualification.

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the 42nd Constitutional Amendment.

1. It amended the Preamble to replace "Sovereign Democratic Republic" with "Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic."

2. It reduced the tenure of the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies from 5 years to 4 years.

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the amendment procedure of the Indian Constitution.

1. A constitutional amendment bill can be initiated in either House of Parliament or by state legislatures.

2. The President is constitutionally obligated to give assent to a constitutional amendment bill.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the 97th Constitutional Amendment?

i. It added the right to form cooperative societies as a Fundamental Right under Article 19(c).

ii. It mandates that the board of directors of a cooperative society shall not exceed 21 members.

iii. It requires the approval of the Election Commission of India for conducting elections to cooperative societies. A) B) C) D)

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Anti-Defection Law under the 52nd and 91st Constitutional Amendments?

i. The 52nd Amendment introduced the Tenth Schedule, which outlines provisions for disqualification on grounds of defection.

ii. The 91st Amendment removed the exception for disqualification in cases of a split in a political party.

iii. A nominated member is disqualified if they join a political party within six months of taking their seat in the House.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the 44th Constitutional Amendment?

i. It restored the term of the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies to 5 years from 6 years.

ii. It ensured that Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended during a national emergency.

iii. It introduced the Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council to streamline taxation.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the 42nd Constitutional Amendment?

i. It added Part IV-A to the Constitution, introducing Fundamental Duties.

ii. It transferred five subjects, including education and forests, from the State List to the Concurrent List.

iii. It abolished the provision for a joint sitting of Parliament for resolving disagreements on constitutional amendment bills.